to my previous question the "K" on kosher

[Hasinah]

Assalamu 'Alaykum wa Rahmatullahi wa Barakatuhu

I sent your response to a Brother and his response came as below:


Aslamualakum,

It was stated in the hadiths and the Quran itself that the food of the people of the book are permited. So who are the people of the book? Well it was the Jews and Christians. So their food is considered allowable or more so makru. So his point of:

"Once we know that a food that is not halaal, that it is haraam, then the question of it being makruh, or mubah etc. is out of the question, as once a product is haraam, it shall remain haraam."

Is so off... I don't even know where to start. Now this isn't to state we should keep away from halal but more so it is haram to make something halal into haram or allowable into something we are not allowed to do. I am no Imam but that is what the Quran states and many different hadiths which I have read. Now we should prefer halal over makru which is given I won't argue against that. But making something allowable into haram is not something even the Prophet would have agreed to. Which brings up another topic but I will leave that for another time if your interested....

Aslamualakum.

I hope you're able to clarify his concerns/ confusion...

Jazaka'Allah Khair

-hasinah-
Dil Se...

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PREVIOUS QUESTION/ANSWER : ashraf786.proboards15.com/index.cgi?board=halal&action=display&thread=1129159439

[Imam]

Bismillahir Rahmanir Raheem

Wa'alaykum 'Assalam wa Rahmatullahi wa Barakatuhu



Praise be to Allah who is the Lord of the Worlds, and may Endless Blessings be showered upon His Most Beloved, and Final Messenger of Islam, Hadrat Muhammad MustafaSalla Allahu ta'ala 'alayhi wa 'aalihi wa Sallam



Jazak'allah for your question. You know, it does not really matter whether a brothers response conflicts with the ideology of the Qur'an al kareem, or the hadith, so long as the Qur'an al kareem and the hadith have been read and interpreted in the correct way.


He states:

'' It was stated in the hadiths and the Quran itself that the food of the people of the book are permited. So who are the people of the book? Well it was the Jews and Christians. So their food is considered allowable or more so makru ''


The point to realise here is that, is the food of the Jews and the Christians, made halaal by reciting the name of Allah Subhanahu wa Ta'ala upon it, or has it been killed in the name of some other diety? For if it has been killed in the name of some other diety, it will constitute as being haraam, and not halaal.


In cases of food which is not meat in nature, then we all perfectly well know, that this can be consumed by Muslims and non-Muslims alike. For example, wheat, honey, cereal, sugar etc.


However, our issue is concerned with meat and chicken etc. Which although maybe killed in an unislamic way, it will render it to be haraam, and not halaal. Allah the Almighty states:


'Innama harrama 'alaykumul mytata waddama wa lahmal khinziri wa ma uhilla bihi li ghayrillahi' (Surah al Baqarah, 2:173)


'He has only forbidden these to you, carrion, blood and flesh of the swine, and the flesh of animals slaughtered, by invoking a name other than Allah'


Since the Kosher foods do not have the name of Allah Subhanahu wa Ta'ala invoked upon them prior to the killing of the animal, these are deemed as haraam. It is not me who is stating that, but it is the Qur'an al kareem, as mantioned above.


Secondly, the Ahl al-Kitab, whom the brother has referred to as the Christians and Jews, then are they the Christians and Jews in the real sense? Do they follow the teachings of Moses, and Jesus as the laws had been revealed to them? Or has there been changes made by man in their laws, for example the Bible, which has so many editions, you would not know which one to follow! Are these the Ahl al-Kitab whom the brother has referred to? Or does there remain a religion after the religion of the Last Beloved Messenger Salla Allahu ta'ala 'alayhi wa 'aalihi wa Sallam?


If their original religion has been distorted, and fabricated, and in essence the reality of their religion no longer exists due to their negligence, then do you really think:


' So their food is considered allowable or more so makru '

....... as he has stated?


Furthermore, my quotation which he has quoted, and shown so much ignorance by stating 'it is so off', when in reality it is perfectly clear and straightforward that:


"Once we know that a food that is not halaal, that it is haraam, then the question of it being makruh, or mubah etc. is out of the question, as once a product is haraam, it shall remain haraam"


Then I am afraid that what Allah the Almighty has prescribed us is halaal, and what He and His Most Beloved Messenger Salla Allahu ta'ala 'alayhi wa Sallam has forbade us, is haraam. There is no argument in this, nor is there any question of it, being 'off'.


Finally, it doesnt state that Kosher foods are halaal? Like I stated above, we already know that non-meat products like vegetables, and cerials are halaal, so how can Kosher foods become halaal, when kosher is kosher, and halaal is halaal. Anything that is not halaal, which has not had the name of Allah the Almighty recited upon it prior to it being slaughtered, is not regarded as being fit to be consumed by the Muslims.


Alhamdu lillah, the Muslims have their own method of slaughter, they have their own identity, and they definitely will survive from no meat which has not had the name of Allah Subhanahu wa Ta'ala recited upon it, prior to slaughter.


May Allah the Almighty give us the tawfiq to act according to the Shar'iyyah of the Messenger of Allah Salla Allahu ta'ala 'alayhi wa 'aalihi wa Sallam, and may He keep us away from the accursed shaitan, who will try to make halaal, what is, in fact, haraam.



Wallahu A'lamu Biththawaab



M. Waseem Ashrafi